Serious question: would that have been illegal if the original purchaser did not transfer the gun, and kept it? In other words, is it illegal to furnish money to someone so they can go buy a gun?
Second serious question: it is still legal to gift a firearm to a person who otherwise legally may own it, correct?
No on the first, yes on the second.
Not quite
The first (giving someone money to buy a gun) isn't illegal (in fact, this decision affirms it, as the gift certificate and/or cash thing was mentioned), its only illegal (based on this decision) if you give someone the money (and do so in a way that creates a de facto contract money for gun) AND you (the money giver) expect to receive the gun.
So its yes on both, IF you (zahc) are not the one who ends up with it.
Of course, this #%£<€#>ing decision now becomes freakin' pre-crime, because (for instance) what if I give you money (as a gift), you go buy a gun, shoot it a few times, then give me the gun as a gift? If there wasn't any quid pro quo on the initial money gift, is it a crime?
Is there a time-frame?
Since money is fungible, the crime now becomes intent--since we know the PTB at the ATF LOVE "conspiracy" and don't seek to give a flying f about innocent until proven guilty, or burden of proof, does that mean you can be charged if you receive a gun from someone if AT ANY TIME in the past you gave them something?
Example: I gave my dad an AR (not breaking the law) for Christmas. That same Christmas, I received midway gift certificates, and other gifts from my parents. Was that A crime? He had expressed interest in an AR, I had expressed interest in gift certificates to a store I use. Even without any communication or intent, did such exchange constitute a violation?