For some reason, I'm missing the reason for volatility as a result of wide ownership of index funds??? The underlying market (whichever market the fund is tied to) can be expected to increase (probably faster than inflation), correct? And, these funds will have very low expense ratios, so they should just slightly trail the market in net earnings. That's pretty much 'set and forget'. What am I missing?
I'm roughly 60% in cash or cash equivalents, 20% in mutual funds (primarily value funds, large cap), and 20% in hard money loans secured by trust deeds. I've got 5 years to retirement, so I'm pulling in my horns.