ACCORDING to a new study by the Pew Research Center, Hispanic families saw the largest decline in wealth of any racial or ethnic group in the country during the latter half of the last decade: from 2005 to 2009, their median wealth fell by an astounding 66 percent. The reason? The implosion of the housing market, where Hispanic families had invested much of their wealth.
Shouldn't the article end right there? I mean, if Hispanics are more inclined to invest in real estate, then the bottom falls out from under their chosen investment, doesn't that explain the phenomenon? I mean, unless the author intends to show that the real estate market was purposely manipulated to put Hispanics back in their place?
