CAnnoneer,
Let's review this latest post.
Excellent. So you do agree they do it to themselves
How is "direct strike by foreign power" and "arms and funds provided from outside" the same thing as "they do it to themselves?" Not seeing that at all, so I'm not sure how you were able to so badly misunderstand my point.
With what army? Recruited from which cultures? American mercs? Nope. Locals flocking to the banners. So much for "unity". Like I said, many of them pay lip service to unity, just like elitist dems cannot stop talking about Jesus and poverty, but when the time comes for action, they look out for number one.
Well, by your analysis the US is "tribal" just like the Arabs. If that's the case, you need a new explanation for poverty and underdevelopment. In many cases, foreign mercenaries (or allies) are in fact the source of the attack-witness the 1967 war against Nasser. The Arabs weren't the ones who defeated him.
Your assumption is that we are the ones that prop these regimes. If that is the case, why aren't they doing what we want? Syria for example is deeply and increasingly involved in training and supplying jihadists that kill Iraqis and our troops. Syria is the major corridor for entry into Iraq for them. If we are propping the Syrian gov, why are they fighting against us??
They are, and that's why Syria is allied with Iran. Notice that of the spectrum of relative strengths, Iran is the strongest of the states in that region (compared to any Arab state) with Syria in next place. If Syria were not supported by Iran, it would likely not last long....but it is, and Iran isn't a dictatorship. Doesn't matter how you want to carve up its government, the country does not operate under a dictatorship that kills everyone who dissents. In that respect, it has a whole lot more stability and representative capacity than any of the neighborhing countries.
Right, the evil white man did it all to the poor little local innocent victims. Pink glasses.
Okay, try this: Name an Arab border that was not drawn by western powers, and an arab government that was not put into place by western powers in the WWII era and beyond. Maybe you think facts are inconvenient, but they are certainly there...look it up sometime. Occupying someone else's country, declaring what the border is, and installing a Monarch into power counts as outside interference, don't you think?
. The stance was that they are tribal, i.e. they obey their tribal chiefs. If the chiefs make a deal with an outside power, the tribals will be kept in line through their chiefs. Thus the ottoman imperial superstructure could be imposed onto the shaky legs of tribalism by local contracts. But I already explained that. Notice that the superstructure government was foreign and maintained by local chiefs. When the Ottomans fell, the tribalism logically re-emerged. Moreover, as jfruser pointed out explicitly, once the current weak govs fall after they run out of oil revenue, again the tribal culture will re-emerge.
What? That's your picture of Ottoman administration? Uh....well, back to the textbook for you. The Ottomans used a slave-like class of professional administrators (Janissary) for much of that time. The Ruler of Egypt that carried it through independence from Ottoman rule was BOSNIAN, for example. The problem with this argument is that you're totally wrong on the facts of Ottoman rule-it did not rule by "the shakey legs of tribalism", it ruled by professional administration.
"Tribalism" re-emerged with the instigation and financial support of the British, at that time interested in fomenting revolt against the Ottomans. So yeah...get the facts straight first, then your argument can develop.
Explained above. Also, you cannot count the Ottoman empire as an arabic one. Turks are not arabs. They don't even like one another very much.
Ah ha....and that's why the Arabs rallied around Ottoman rulers in many cases who were not Arabs? You're making the mistake of confusing post-nationalist Turkey with Ottoman Turkey. Ataturk's transformation of Turkey into a race-based state (following the European model) is what made the Turkish-Arab divide today. Before that, Arabic was a language of Court for the Ottomans and the Turks generally did not think in terms of "Turk versus Arab".
Turkey today is a post WWI development of the Turks' plan to shape their country on a European secular model, and that's where your example starts to make sense. So if it's an example of "tribalism", then again, you've got the problem of the European system and the American system being "tribal" to the same extent.
But before they do, how many actually do anything vs how many aid, support, and comprise the regime? This bullshit has been going on since despots appeared in the dawn of history. More recently, after Hitler died, suddenly everybody was anti-nazi. Same with Stalin, Berya, Khruschev, Brejnev, Andropov, Gorby, and the clique of East European dictators. The reality is that a sufficient number of people in all cases were more than happy to be active participants or silent aiders to the regime. THAT is internal support.
Okay, so which is it? Did the Arabs get along fine with non-Arab rulers, or did they support them despite this "tribalism" that you keep forcing upon the historical account? Your claim here really doesn't amount to much, anyway, because you fail to define what is a "sufficient number of people." A sufficient number of people can be the army-not anywhere near a significant percentage of the population, but enough to control the rest. As long as they get money and weapons, they can kill whoever argues with them.
If that's not what you're saying, what is the impact of your point on this discussion?
That will be news to the French and Italians. They don't even speak Germanic languages. The French are descendents of Gauls, partly intermixed with Franks (Charlemagne) and Vikings (Normans/Burgundians). The Italians are descendents of Italic tribes that formed early Rome, and later intermixed with freed slave foreigners and eventually "barbarian" tribes. If the "invaders" were indeed that dominant in the gene pool, you'd expect the eventual peoples to speak germanic languages.
This is quite amusing. Not only will this not be news to the French and Italians, it would be news indeed for them to find out that it's
not the case. The Franks were a Germanic horde-the Normans never were a majority of the country. The celtic Gauls were gone for centuries before the Franks showed up-there was almost nothing left of pre-Roman celtic society by the time the Romans finished with Europe and the Germanic hordes did clean up.
"Their cultures" are distinctly related-and they are so because they are Germanic. Some centuries after the germanic invasions, they got ahold of Roman legal codes and tried to reinstitute Roman rule, but the basic system of oath, fealty to a Lord, trial, and feud remained for a long, long time. Many of the names remain Germanic: Louis is a particularly prominent example (it comes from Clovis.)
French and Italian art is not Roman art. It's true that germanic-Norse art is not the same, but then again, they were never primarily Norse countries. They were, however, primarily Germanic countries. There was no resurgence of Romans after the hordes destroyed Rome-the hordes learned something from the documents they still had (and those they received again via Spain), but yeah....they remained genetically and culturally germanic peoples.
Your history on this, in sum, is not even close.
It is a contract between a lord and a vassal. Completely normal for the time.
This was normal for a Germanic barbarian society. It was most definitely not the norm for the Romans, the Arabs, the Persians, or any of the other societies that were highly developed and economically productive. The Lordship-Vassal model existed mostly in the backwards, uneducated, and brutal European states of the time. It was the opposite of what Romans and post-Renaissance societies used.
That was a typical lifestyle at the time. That is not a sedentary agrarian lifestyle. He did not work the land and neither did most of his early followers.
Okay, so what happened to this "desert nomad" claim? Clearly, he and his tribe were not nomads. They lived in settled cities and in permanent structures.
Again, just because a group of zealots enters an agrarian city and converts its citizens at the edge of a scimitar does not give you the right to claim that the particular city was a "center" for islam.
That wasn't what happened either. They actually ended up by consensus in charge of Medina, and then by contract in charge of Mecca. The charter is still available, you can read it here:
http://ehistory.osu.edu/osu/sources/documentview.cfm?ID=12Either way, we're certainly through with your false claim that it was a Nomadic society. It clearly was not.
Ok, so explain to us what it is that made those places "even more successful" than before? Technology, political organization, superior code of laws? And compared to what? The Old World overrun with plagues, huns, vandals, visigoths etc.? I think taking into account what the Old World went through, they've done amazingly well and still far better than anybody else
You mean what they went through on their own account and because of their own culture in the "Old World"? It's not like the Romans were attacked and then rebuilt. They were destroyed and overtaken by Barbarian hordes. That Germanic culture reversed a thousand years of development virtually overnight...and as it revived, it relied on technology transfers from you guessed it: the economic colossus of the middle ages, the Islamic empire. That's
where the recovery of Roman techniques and the beginnings of European technological development started.
What made the the Roman and Persian territories more developed than before was the Arabs relatively hands off approach to rule: they let the populations in place keep their religion, defined their rights and duties as a matter of contract, and thereby laid the framework for relatively stable economic conditions. They also reduced taxes across the board, something modern conservatives would be interested to note.
On top of the administrative system, the Arab states invested heavily in academic progress. The first universities and proto-research institutes were founded by the Islamic empires, and they served their purpose: to promote technological and social development. Medicine in particular was a big achievement in this arena.
I am tired of having to prove the obvious, in the face of subjectively-motivated denial. If you want to further argue the point, read a recent article on an interview with Gen. Petraeus in Human Events.
Again, you've cited precisely zero knowledge of Afghanistan. How exactly do you intend to compare information about the Arabs to another society if you don't actually know anything about that society?
Comparing Afghanistan to Arabia requires knowing something about both. So where's at least an attempt at spelling out the Afghan side of this equation?