I am reading Friedmans "Free To Choose" now. He gives some history of social welfare programs in the US, England, and Germany. In one quotation from the start of the British experience in the 1900s someone suggests that taking government hand-outs and having the ability to vote are not compatible. I recall one of the political philosophers making the same point that if people with no stake had the vote they would simply vote themselves larger and larger entitlements, bankrupting society. This is why virtually every state originally had a landowner/freehold requirement for voting.
So what about the idea that if anyone is taking direct government subsidies he should lose his voting rights for that time. This would include welfare, SSI, WIC, student loans (not in repayment), farm subsidies, etc.