So you've seen the Episcopal Church USA rationalizations of how the Bible doesn't really mean that homosexuality is a sin when it says that "men shall not lie with men"? I've read a few of them, and they really are a stretch.
1Cor 6:9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, 10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.
Rom 1:27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
1Tim 1: 9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, 10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;
Seems pretty clear to me, and all NT, so no claiming that was part of the Jewish stuff that doesn't apply anymore. Some of them keep trying to argue the exact meaning of ἀρσενοκοῖται, but they start sounding like the Clinton defense pretty quickly.